Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 04:03
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What’s wrong with anti-imperialism?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Can Djokovic climb the mountain? - Roland Garros
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.